What about the phrase “no use“, sir? Is it right that it’s always followed by a gerund? Thank you.
Kanadeva
ANSWER:
- It’s no use crying over spilled milk.Â
- I have learned English for many years but I have never practiced it regularly. Because of the lack of practice, I can’t speak fluently and can’t write well, either. So, it’s no use having learned for many years without practicing it.
Is it always followed by a gerund? I would rather say “mostly” than “always“. In the following conversation, I think it’s better to use infinitive, instead.
A. What’s your plan now?
B. I am going to talk to him.
A. It’s no use to talk to him.
B. Why?
A. Because he never listens.
Related Posts:
has 219 post(s) on Swara Bhaskara's English
Born and proud to be Putra Dewata.
2 comments
Kanadeva
December 6, 2010
Nyindir, ya?
Hehehe… Thank you very much for your explanation. May I conclude that for something that has happened it is followed by gerund and for something that will happen it is followed by to infinitive?
Swara Bhaskara
December 7, 2010
I have nothing to say but to agree with your conclusion.